Fatwas No. 09944

Bismehi Ta'aala

To his holiness, the leader of the Umma and the Marja' of the Shiites, Grand Ayatollah Khamene'i (may my soul be sacrificed):

After praise and eulogy of God almighty and never-ending salutations upon the holy presence of the infallibles, and with apologies for any inconveniences, with a blessed greeting I draw your attention to the following: People from varying professions (eg professors, physicians, engineers, students) are in need of rulings from your holiness as presented below:

Determination of one's homeland

Question: In the West (in the big cities in particular), the concept of "neighborhood" does not hold much currency. In particular, a Muslim (from any ethnicity or country) for whatever time that he inhabits a place is considered to be a foreigner. If a person has unintentionally remained outside of his country (even 10 or 15 years) and lived in one place throughout this time, under what conditions, and after what period of time will that place be considered as his homeland? If his co-workers, or those Muslims with whom he associates (however many that may be) consider it to be his homeland, is that sufficient?

Answer: To live (even) permanently in a city without intention of taking up permanent residence will not make that place your homeland. The ruling of "homeland" is derived from the intention to take up permanent residence - despite the number of years a person may actually live there - and iregardless of how many of his neighbors or co-workers know him.

On the status of children who come to Islam born of illegitimate means

Question: Unfortunately, the foundation of the family is steadily weakening. The concept of marital union and husband and wife according to common usage, either as defined by the Church or the State has been limited. So much so that in some Western societies the requirements of "union" (in common law) is fulfilled simply by men and women co-habitating without a proper union as recognized by the Church or the State. A fair number of German parents are married in ceremonies officiated by either the Church or the State after conception of a fetus, or even after the birth of the child. Some never bother to have enter into an official union. Which Christian ceremony--religious or secular -according to Islam is acceptable (mo'tabar)? What is the status of a person who, having been conceived prior to the binding of a marriage contract, later comes to Islam in the age of maturity? Is his birth considered legitimate (once he has converted) or not?

Answer: The legitimacy of the marital union between husband and wife is determined according to their religion. Any child born of pre-marital relations is considered to be illegitimate, no matter when his parents subsequently wed.
further question in this regard

On the consumption of medicines containing alcohol

Question: In the field of medicine, there is a therapy for certain chronic illnesses, such as those for certain allergies or skin conditions, in which a small amount of the patient's blood is used. A solution is made from one part blood to ninety-nine parts water. This is then suspended in a 30-40% alcohol solution to form a tincture. This tincture is then diluted similarly one hundred times. This dilution may occur up to 12 times. In the end, an extremely small fraction of the patient's blood is present in the tincture. Over a number of weeks, each day, several times a day, the patient ingests a few drops of the ultra-dilute tincture. Is it permissible to take such a medicine? This is in reference to the fact that the alcohol serves as a preservative, and thus, is a necessary component of the mixture (containing blood). Is it permissible to use medicines containing alcohol in general? Is such a medicine considered to be ritually clean (taher)?

Answer: A medicine, such as described above, or in fact, any medicine containing alcohol, even if it be a small amount, is not permissible. However, if its usage is necessary for the overall treatment and cure, it is not a problem.

On the purification of sewage water and the consumption of such

Question:

1. Today in the West, domestic and industrial waste may be purified by one of several methods: mechanical, physical, biological, or chemical. This process is repeated 7-8 times, after which, in certain European cities, it is reused, before reaching the sea or flowing water. For example, sewage purified by the biological method involves placing bacteria in an acquafer containing sewage. The bacteria, in the process of replication, consume the waste products, leaving a water behind which lacks any odor, taste, or color associated with sewage. This process is advantageous because it can be accomplished much faster than using the natural method. Is such water pure (taher)?
2. Some reasearchers use sewage water contained in containers holding no more than a few liters. If such water is purified in a test tube by the above method, with all traces of the odor, taste, or color of sewage removed, will it be considered taher?
3. What volume of treated sewage, and under what conditions, will be considered consumable and taher?
4. Is the consumption of such treated water permissible if it does not appear objectionable to the common man?

Answer: Treating water in such a manner does not make it taher. Such water becomes taher only under two circumstances:

1) that it become mixed with a "kor" or greater amount of water, or,
2) that it become mixed with rain water.
Until then, it is not permissible to consume it.

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